My dad and I are in the process of acquiring a SFR to rent it for a positive cash flow. We bought it for $99,000 and the rent we could get is about $1200/month. I found the deal, and had to have my dad go in with me because it'd be impossible for me to get a loan. He will purchase the property with cash from a credit line with an adjustable interest rate. His name will be on the deed. Once the property is bought, he will look to finance it with a fixed interest rate. My question is this: Could he sell the house to me and I just assume the loan that he just got on it (like a sub-2)? Doing this, I will get the $8000 first time home buyer's tax credit. Doing a sub-2 requires the bank's approval, right? If they say, "No" then I'm screwed.
Ultimately, my goal is to acquire a rental property that will give me a good cash flow. I have $17,000 saved up, good credit, but I don't have an income. I want to take advantage of the $8000 tax credit. I would live in the house for one month before renting it out. Would this work? What should I do?

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