Here is my question. My brother and were recently involved in a messy real estate deal. Our now former father tried to cash in on a real estate property that he'd previously agreed (in a verbal agreement) to sign over to us once we'd paid it off. He and our mother were the sole original owners and were the only names on the deed. After our mother passed away and our father changed his mind we used our mothers will and the divorce decree to replace her name with ours through an attorney. This was done to keep him from selling the property without us getting equity back.

According to all of the attorneys we have spoken to our names were on the deed but in a "muddy" manner. Because my brother and I never actually purchased the home ourselves I doubt that either of us would be considered "1st time home buyers" already, but then again I suppose there might be some way that we technically are. Would our names having been on the deed (in the "muddy" manner) for 1 year qualify us as having been home owners or would we qualify as something else due to the "muddy" issue? The main reason I ask is because I will soon be in the market to purchase a home and I don't know if I would qualify for "1st Time Buyer" discounts.

Thanks for any info you can offer.

First of all I don't think you have a former father, either he is your father or he is not and I don't think that this forum is the proper place to air that dirty laundry. You may or may not choose to associate with him but either way he is your father.

For your real question to this forum, which is first time buyer discounts, what discounts are you talking about?

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Mack Perry - Atlanta Georgia Real Estate, Atlanta Homes for Sale and the Atlanta Real Estate Blog

Most of these "first time home buyer" discounts are just a way to make you think are getting some special deal. I come across very few real first time home buyer programs. As to weather or not you will qualify, I do not know. My guess is you would not because you have had ownership interest in the past three years.

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Mike Taylor
Indianapolis Real Estate | Carmel Real Estate |My REW Blog

I am saying how it is done in Texas, you are considered a first time home buyer if you have not owned a home in the last 3 years . there are good and bad ones out there.Ask the questions do I have to pay the money back ? Is the money tacked onto the back of my loan? do I have to live in the house x amount of years to not have to pay it back .We have grants in Texas where you get up to 5% for down payment /closing cost FREE never have to pay it back ,it depends on your family size and income.

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Barbara Newton
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I am unlcear as what clarifies "Muddy Manner" on a deed. Either your name is on it or its not. If your name is on the deed "regardless" of the amount of time then that shows interest in real esate as an owner thus excluding you from qualifiying as a first time home owner.

A good "Real Estate Trust Attorney" could help you and would be worth the cash to pay him.

Good luck to you
Sean

Being "muddy" on a deed doesn't make sense to me. Either you are on the deed or you are not. Reading your story, my guess is you are/were NOT on the deed. Sounds like you and your brother are simply on the will as heirs to her estate.

If that's the case, you qualify as a first time buyer.

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